EDUCATION
PAPER – III
This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions.
Each Question carries two (2) marks.
Answer all questions.
1. Select the most appropriate combination of the following, which may be used to describe the relation between philosophy and education.
i. Goals of life
ii. Study of human behaviour
iii. Needed knowledge and skills for jobs
iv. Patterns of human interactions
v. Life values
vi. History of human growth
(1) i, iii, and v
(2) i, iii, and iv
(3) iii, iv, and v
(4) i, ii, and iv
2. Which of the following methods is closely related to the tenets of realism ?
(1) Discovery method
(2) Heuristic method
(3) Learning by doing
(4) Project method
3. In terms of which of the following epistemological approaches, knowledge is considered to be multifaceted ?
(1) Principles of Islamic knowledge
(2) Anuman of Vedanta
(3) Dwadash Nidan of Buddhism
(4) Syadvad of Jainism
4. In Buddhism, which school advocates attainment of ‘Nirvana’ through practical and worldly reality considerations ?
(1) Hinyana
(2) Mahayana
(3) Soutantrik
(4) Yogachara
5. Which one of the following statements appropriately describes the position of Sri Aurobindo ?
(1) Life has been evolving to a higher level.
(2) Art is long and time is short.
(3) Life has a purpose.
(4) Man is a divine animal.
6. The concept of sociology of education implies :
(1) Use of sociology for making learning socially relevant
(2) Devising ways and means of education to reach all sections of society
(3) Consideration on the uses of education from sociological perspective
(4) Discussion on the implications of sociology for education
7. Which of the following may not be a barrier in education for social change ?
(1) Caste and ethnicity
(2) Language
(3) Regionalism and religion
(4) Scientific attitude
8. The purpose of common school system is to address the issue of :
(1) Evils of modernity
(2) Social equity
(3) Extraneous interference in education
(4) Caste based reservation system
9. Which of the following will be more benefited by the diversified curriculum ?
(1) Tribal girls
(2) Scheduled Tribes
(3) Scheduled Castes
(4) Slum dwellers
10. Which of the following interventions are likely to raise human development index ?
(1) Vocationalisation of education
(2) Value education
(3) Health and wellness education
(4) Secular education
11. Creativeness and originality are processes of arranging well known facts and principles in new relationships so that whatever is intended may be achieved more effectively. In other words, this means :
(1) New knowledge has been applied in a traditional way to achieve a purpose.
(2) Common knowledge has been applied in a new way to achieve a new purpose.
(3) Known knowledge has been applied in a traditional way to achieve a purpose.
(4) New knowledge has been applied in a traditional existing way to achieve a purpose.
12. Despite divergent intellectual levels of students, their performance level can be made comparable if
(a) Similar life and living conditions are provided to them
(b) Diversified training and learning sessions are conducted
(c) The diet and nutrients are controlled properly
(d) Students are given opportunities of growing and developing in accordance with their talents.
(e) Students are able to manifest themselves according to their potentials.
(f) Multiple methods and techniques to address diverse needs are put in place.
On the basis of statements given above, select the correct combination from the following :
(1) (a), (c), (d), (e)
(2) (b), (d), (e), (f)
(3) (a), (b), (d), (e)
(4) (c), (d), (e), (f)
13. Choose the appropriate sequence of steps involved in problem solving :
(i) Confronting the problem
(ii) Collection of evidence
(iii) Formulating possible solutions of hypothesis
(iv) Testing the possible solutions
(v) Arriving at conclusions
(vi) Evaluating the sustainability of solutions
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (vi), (iv), (v)
(2) (i), (iii), (ii), (vi), (v), (iv)
(3) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv), (v), (vi)
(4) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii), (v), (vi)
14. Peer group membership has high educational implications during
(1) Childhood
(2) Later childhood
(3) Adolescence
(4) Adulthood
15. In the List-I stages of Piaget’s cognitive development are given and in List-II are given distinct cognitive features. Match the two lists and choose the code to give your answer :
16. Which of the following set of statements appropriately differentiates between classical and operant conditioning paradigm ?
(i) Classical conditioning involves stimulus-stimulus substitution whereas operant conditioning is S-R conditioning where S is made contingent on R.
(ii) Classical conditioning is related to psycho-somatic behaviour while operant conditioning deals with reflexes.
(iii) In classical conditioning reinforcement precedes a response while in operant conditioning it follows a response.
(iv) Subject is relatively active in classical conditioning whereas it is a passive responder in operant conditioning.
(v) The association between two stimuli is a critical factor in learning through classical conditioning while the response and reinforcement contingency is important for learning in operant conditioning.
Select the correct code :
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (i), (iii) and (v)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (iv) and (v)
17. According to Hull, which one of the following will be called a dependent variable ?
(1) Habit strength
(2) Drive
(3) Resistance to Extinction
(4) Excitatory reaction potential
18. The evidence on latent learning became the basis of formulating which theory/model of learning ?
(1) Bruner’s discovery learning model
(2) Tolman’s sign-gestalt theory
(3) Lewin’s cognitive field theory
(4) Kohler’s theory of insight learning
19. Which of the following sequence reflects the correct experiential learning process as described by Kolb ?
(1) Processing, experiencing, generalizing, applying
(2) Applying, generalizing, experiencing, processing
(3) Experiencing, processing, generalizing, applying
(4) Generalizing, experiencing, processing, applying
20. Which of the following terms is the equivalent of transfer in learning experiments ?
(1) Stimulus discrimination
(2) Extinction of response
(3) Reinforcing stimulus
(4) Stimulus or response generalization
21. Which of the following types in Gagne’s hierarchy of learning exemplifies hypothesis making and hypothesis testing ?
(1) Sign learning (Type I)
(2) Stimulus response learning (Type III)
(3) Rule learning (Type VII)
(4) Problem solving learning (Type VIII)
22. In which of the operant conditioning procedure the positive reinforcement is made contingent on the making of a response in the presence of a cue ?
(1) Reward training
(2) Omission training
(3) Discrimination training
(4) Discriminated omission training
23. Who advanced the concept of ‘creative self’ as the most essential aspect of one’s personality ?
(1) Allport
(2) Adler
(3) Freud
(4) Jung
24. ‘Defence Mechanisms’ are used by an individual
(1) to solve personal problems
(2) to avoid unpleasant situations
(3) to promote adjustment process
(4) to counter the hostility of others
25. A school programme is directed at ensuring a satisfactory level of cleanliness with a view to organize ‘Yoga Camps’ for wellness life style in children. Which aspect of the programme may lead to ‘mental health’ of children ?
(1) The school programme itself
(2) Cleanliness of a satisfactory level
(3) Organizing cleanliness drive
(4) Yoga camps for wellness life style
26. Educational guidance to the students may be provided through :
(a) Organizing interactive sessions
(b) Engaging students in co-curricular activities in a meaningful way
(c) Promoting sensitivity to others
(d) Aquenting students with available vocational opportunities
(e) Introducing students to group life situations
Select the correct code :
Codes :
(1) (a) (b) (d) (e)
(2) (e) (c) (b) (d)
(3) (c) (b) (e) (a)
(4) (e) (d) (a) (c)
27. Match the following :
28. Match the items of List-I with those of List-II and select the proper code to indicate your answer :
29. Guidance is a process which enables each individual :
(a) To understand one’s abilities
(b) To develop a realistic picture of one’s ownself
(c) To sharpen one’s understanding about life goals
(d) To procure information about the role of community
(e) To help achieve a state of mature self guidance
Select the appropriate code :
Codes :
(1) (a) (d) (e) (b)
(2) (c) (a) (d) (e)
(3) (b) (d) (a) (c)
(4) (a) (b) (c) (e)
30. A student wants to know whether he will perform well in a particular job. Which of the following tools will predict this ?
(1) Attitude test
(2) Aptitude test
(3) Intelligence test
(4) Interest test
31. For collecting data in respect of attitude of school teachers towards the new curriculum, which of the following scales, will use summated rating scores as an indicator ?
(1) Thurstone scale
(2) Guttman scale
(3) Likert scale
(4) Osgood scale
32. A study was designed to estimate the effect of four different methods of providing feedback to elementary school level students on their spelling ability. At the level of data analysis which of the following statistical technique will be considered appropriate for hypothesis testing in this study ?
(1) Kruskal-Wallis ‘H’ test
(2) Fisher’s ‘F’ test
(3) Student’s ‘t’ test
(4) Mann-Whitney ‘U’ test
33. Which of the following is not a characteristic of narrative research ? Select the code :
a. Collecting individual stories
b. Collaborating with participants
c. Chronology of the experience
d. Association of variables for group of participants
e. Data collection at one point of time from a sample
Codes :
(1) b and c
(2) a and e
(3) d and e
(4) b and d
34. Match the experimental design in Set I with that of characteristics in Set II and select appropriate code :
35. Identify the statement showing the positive strength of internet as a resource for literature review :
(1) Research posted on websites is not reviewed for quality by experts
(2) Website literature may not be organized in a useful way
(3) The research reported in websites, may have been plagiarized
(4) Research posted on websites is typically current information
36. As compared to questionnaire, the use of interview as a research tool has advantage owing to
(1) its accessibility to personal and sensitive nature of information
(2) its sources of error
(3) its low reliability
(4) the requirement for training of interviewer
37. Assertion (A) : The research hypothesis being the alternative hypothesis (H1) has to be kept in the domain of acceptability.
Reason (R) : The Null hypothesis (H0) has been rejected at high alpha (significance) level thereby rendering the possibility of Type I error quite insubstantial.
Select the correct answer from the code :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
38. Set I contains threats to internal validity of experimental research. Identify from Set II the correct explanation of the threats and select appropriate code to indicate your answer :
39. Which of the following sampling techniques belongs to probability sampling ?
(1) Convenience sampling
(2) Snow ball sampling
(3) Quota sampling
(4) Random sampling
40. While using a rating scale as a tool of research, which of the following is to be avoided ?
(1) Clarity of directions
(2) Mutually exclusive characteristics
(3) Criteria of ratings
(4) Halo effect
41. What is the biggest hurdle in achieving the universalisation of elementary education in India ?
(1) Scarcity of resources
(2) Improper planning
(3) Mindset of the people
(4) Population explosion
42. One major function of vocational education is to
(1) create employment opportunities
(2) open a channel for children of low academic preparedness
(3) help children become competent
(4) create skilled manpower for jobs
43. The responsibility of vocational education at higher education level in U.S.A. has been the concern of
(1) All colleges
(2) Federal colleges
(3) State run colleges
(4) Community colleges
44. In which country the educational system is envisioned as a partnership between states and the central government ?
(1) Russia
(2) Great Britain
(3) U.S.A.
(4) India
45. Which country is the pioneer of distance education course at higher education level ?
(1) India
(2) Britain
(3) America
(4) Australia
46. Which curricular model is least democratic in operation ?
(1) Administrative Model
(2) Grass root Model
(3) Demonstration Model
(4) System Analysis Model
47. School teacher, Mr. Patel developed a model of curriculum with the help of his students. In coming years this model became so popular that gradually all schools at district, state and national level implemented this model. This may be called an example of
(1) Demonstration Model
(2) Grass root Model
(3) Administrative Model
(4) System Analysis Model
48. Match the two sets :
49. Summative evaluation implies
(1) Use of daily quizzes
(2) Monitoring of learning through homework
(3) Terminal tests
(4) Weekly grading of students
50. What should be included in the final report card of a learner at secondary level ?
a. Gain or loss in weight of learner
b. Details about social background
c. Performance in co-curricular activities
d. Performance in tests
e. Personality and nature of the child
f. School medical test reports
(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a, b, c, d and e
(3) c, d, e and f
(4) a, c, d, e and f
51. A child fainted during school prayer. As a principal of the school, what will you do ?
(1) Ask a teacher to conduct the prayer and take the child to a doctor.
(2) Ask a teacher to care for the child and continue conducting the prayer.
(3) Ask a teacher to take the child to his/her home and continue with prayer.
(4) Ask a teacher to continue with prayer, supervise the first aid to the child and resume the prayer.
52. The full form of PERT is
(1) Programme of Education, Research and Training
(2) Programme of Educational Review Technique
(3) Programme of Evaluation Review Technique
(4) Personality Evaluation Review Technique
53. In the long run which leadership style is most effective ?
(1) Autocratic
(2) Participative
(3) Transactional
(4) Transformational
54. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of perspective planning ?
(1) One plan for a period of 20 or 25 years
(2) Long term planning
(3) Long range targets set in advance
(4) Reviewing the long term plan every year
55. List the functions of educational supervision from the following :
a. Coordinating decision making
b. Effective negotiation
c. Providing support
d. Regulating managerial tasks
e. Monitoring learning and development
(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a, c, d and e
(3) b, c, d and e
(4) a, b, d and e
56. In continuous comprehensive evaluation which of the following devices will help in ensuring comprehensive nature of the evaluation ?
(1) Focussing on cognitive areas of performance
(2) Including a number of evaluation tools for cognitive and non-cognitive areas
(3) Focussing on co-cognitive areas
(4) Involving a large number of expertise in test preparation
57. Which one of the following will be called a typical characteristics test ?
(1) Aptitude test
(2) Achievement test
(3) Performance test
(4) Personality inventory
58. The following statements are related to norm referenced tests. From the codes given below, identify the code which is partially correct.
a. NRT covers a large domain of learning tasks, with a few items measuring each specific task.
b. NRT emphasizes discrimination among individuals in terms of relative level of learning.
c. NRT favours items of average difficulty and minimal number of easy and difficult items.
d. NRT requires a clearly defined group.
e. NRT emphasizes the performance on learning tasks with a reference group.
Codes :
(1) a, c and e
(2) a, d and c
(3) b, c and d
(4) b, a and d
59. Which of the following statements narrate the logical sequence of steps in standardization of tests ? Choose the correct code :
(i) Domain description
(ii) Formulation of test items
(iii) Preliminary try out of test items
(iv) Screening of test items
(v) Deciding the level of objectives
(vi) Critiquing of the difficulty and discrimination power of test items
(vii) Content analysis
(viii) Developing test manual
(ix) Finding out the reliability, validity and norms
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (iv), (vii), (vi), (ix), (viii)
(2) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii), (vi), (v), (ix), (viii), (vii)
(3) (ii), (vi), (iii), (i), (viii), (ix), (v), (iv), (vii)
(4) (vii), (i), (v), (ii), (iii), (vi), (iv), (ix), (viii)
60. Set-I contains method of estimating reliability and Set-II contains types of reliability, match items in Set-I with that in Set-II and select suitable code :
61. Set-I contains some models of teaching. From Set-II identify the corresponding family of teaching models and choose the correct code :
62. The use of system approach is preferred on the following grounds :
(a) It lays emphasis on instructional objectives.
(b) It controls the efforts of teacher in designing class room communication.
(c) It encourages the involvement of community in planning teaching learning situations.
(d) It helps in setting the criteria for the assessment of teaching.
(e) It involves the use of task analysis.
Codes :
(1) (a) (b) (d) (e)
(2) (d) (b) (e) (c)
(3) (e) (d) (c) (b)
(4) (b) (e) (c) (a)
63. Match the strategies in Set-I with those of their corresponding characteristics in Set-II and select the correct code :
64. In the following list of statements identify the correct set :
(a) Linear programming is developed by using immediate reinforcement.
(b) Interactive phase of teaching facilitates the process of communication.
(c) Synectic method facilitates creative process.
(d) Flanders interaction analysis focuses on indirect talk patterns.
(e) Instructional strategies are centred on information based on divergent thinking.
Codes :
(1) (a) (e) (d) (c)
(2) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) (b) (a) (e) (c)
(4) (c) (e) (b) (d)
65. Match the concept in Set-I with those of their corresponding explanations in Set-II and select the correct code :
66. A gifted Child will tend to surpass the average child in which of the following areas ?
(1) Physical health and well being
(2) Social maturity and poise
(3) Academic achievement
(4) Breadth of interest and general versatility
67. In which area do deaf children tend to show relative inferiority as compared to hearing children ?
(1) Socio-emotional development
(2) Language development
(3) Personal and social development
(4) Academic progress
68. Which of the following is not an element of Inclusive education ?
(1) Regard for diversity
(2) Zero rejection
(3) Collaboration
(4) Special class placement
69. Multiple sclerosis is a
(1) Degenerative neuromuscular disease and is not infectious.
(2) Neuromuscular disease presenting as a weakening of the muscles.
(3) Neural tube defect caused by failure of spinal column to properly seal around the spinal cord.
(4) Brain injury caused by severe trauma to the head that results in lasting physical and cognitive impairments.
70. Autosomal disorders are those
(1) Resulting from a defect with 23rd pair of chromosomes and involves a pinched X-chromosome.
(2) Resulting from a defect in the 22nd pairs of chromosomes that are not related to gender.
(3) Resulting from a defect due to chronic genetic disorder.
(4) Resulting from an inherited metabolic disorder.
71. Which of the following institution is the apex body for controlling, guiding and monitoring the activities and programmes of DIETS and other centrally sponsored schemes for teacher education ?
(1) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE).
(2) National Council for Educational Research and Training (NCERT).
(3) University Grants Commission (UGC).
(4) State Council of Educational Research and Training (SCERT).
72. Orientation and refresher courses are the devices for competency building in
(1) Pre-service teacher education
(2) In-service teacher education
(3) Distance education programmes for teachers
(4) Faculty improvement programme for teacher education
73. Which of the following set of statements describes the current problems of teacher education ?
(i) Launching of integrated programmes without adequate preparation on the part of sponsorers.
(ii) Inadequate or no dialogue between teacher education institutions and the practising schools.
(iii) Apathy and competence level of teacher educators.
(iv) Enhanced duration of courses without attention on time intensive transactional strategies.
(v) Internship programme as an integral part of teacher education courses.
(vi) No space for faculty improvement programme for teacher educators.
Codes :
(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi)
(2) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (vi)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
74. There are two sets given below. In Set-I are mentioned levels of teacher education while in Set-II are provided the aims and objectives at various levels of teacher education. Match the two sets and choose the correct code.
75. Which one of the following themes may be appropriate for areas of Action Research in the field of teacher education ? Select the correct code to indicate your answer :
(i) Improving teaching skills of student teacher.
(ii) Identifying suitable criteria for admissions.
(iii) Modification of teaching behaviour of trainees.
(iv) Revisiting teacher education curriculum.
(v) Enhancing professional competencies of both trainees and teacher educators.
(vi) Preparing teachers for special schools
Codes :
(1) (i), (iii) and (v)
(2) (ii), (iv) and (vi)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
| Q.No |
| Q.No |
| Q.No |
| Q.No |
| Q.No |
| |||||
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | 1 | 21 | 4 | 41 | 3 | 61 | 2 | 81 | ||||||
| 2 | 3 | 22 | 3 | 42 | 3 | 62 | 1 | 82 | ||||||
| 3 | 4 | 23 | 2 | 43 | 4 | 63 | 4 | 83 | ||||||
| 4 | 2 | 24 | 3 | 44 | 4 | 64 | 2 | 84 | ||||||
| 5 | 1 | 25 | 4 | 45 | 2 | 65 | 3 | 85 | ||||||
| 6 | 3 | 26 | 1 | 46 | 1 | 66 | 3 | 86 | ||||||
| 7 | 4 | 27 | 3 | 47 | 2 | 67 | 2 | 87 | ||||||
| 8 | 2 | 28 | 2 | 48 | 4 | 68 | 4 | 88 | ||||||
| 9 | 1 | 29 | 4 | 49 | 3 | 69 | 1 | 89 | ||||||
| 10 | 3 | 30 | 2 | 50 | 4 | 70 | 2 | 90 | ||||||
| 11 | 2 | 31 | 3 | 51 | 4 | 71 | 4 | 91 | ||||||
| 12 | 2 | 32 | 2 | 52 | 3 | 72 | 2 | 92 | ||||||
| 13 | 1 | 33 | 3 | 53 | 4 | 73 | 3 | 93 | ||||||
| 14 | 3 | 34 | 4 | 54 | 1 | 74 | 3 | 94 | ||||||
| 15 | 3 | 35 | 4 | 55 | 3 | 75 | 1 | 95 | ||||||
| 16 | 2 | 36 | 1 | 56 | 2 | 76 | 96 | |||||||
| 17 | 3 | 37 | 1 | 57 | 4 | 77 | 97 | |||||||
| 18 | 2 | 38 | 4 | 58 | 1 | 78 | 98 | |||||||
| 19 | 3 | 39 | 4 | 59 | 4 | 79 | 99 | |||||||
| 20 | 4 | 40 | 4 | 60 | 2 | 80 | 100 |
✔
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